grodrigues Posted June 10, 2020 Share Posted June 10, 2020 A simple question: If I set resist_dispel to 1 (dispel/not bypass mr) on a Cast Spell opcode (146 or 148) then will mr of the target block the spell casting, and thus the application of the spell opcodes? My answer would be "why yes of course", but just want to double check with the experts around here that the engine will not double cross me if I count on this behavior. If it makes any difference, you can assume the engine is BG(2) EE. Quote Link to comment
subtledoctor Posted June 10, 2020 Share Posted June 10, 2020 I think the resist_dispel value will determine whether MR blocks the 146 effect; subsequently, the spell will be cast (maybe, if it wasn't blocked) and the spell's internal resist_dispel value will determine whether it gets blocked by MR. When I "clone" spells, I use opcode 146 with resist_dispel = 0, and allow the underlying spell to handle stuff like that. Seems to work fine. (If you set it to 1, there could be two chances to be blocked, theoretically.) Quote Link to comment
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